Sunday, March 1, 2015

Study group discussion: Relative afferent pupillary defect (Marcus Gunn pupil) vs Optic nerve lesion

*A picture was posted on the group on which this discussion took place.

Description of the picture for the readers convenience:
In the first picture, we see normal pupils.
In the second picture, light is shone in the left eye. Right and left pupil constrict.
In the third picture, light is shone in the right eye. Right and left pupils do not constrict.
In the fourth picture, light is again shone on the left eye and again, both pupils constrict*

RAPD?
Also know as Marcus Gunn eye!
Aka prostitute's pupil :P

Nope. Optic nerve is affected on the left side. As there are absolutely no afferents from left eye, indirect is absent.

Yes.. The 3rd nerve efferent is intact and optic nerve is affected.

There is crossing of the afferent fibres of each eye. That's why when you stimulate one eye the other eye also dilates via the efferent fibres. That's how the other eye also constricts (indirect). In this picture, there is complete afferent defect. The optic nerve is completely transected.

Why not RAPD?

In RAPD, when light is shone to the diseased eye, direct absent.. Therefore, doesn't constrict.
Mnemonic: Direct Diminishes in a Diseased eye, indirect present.

RAPD is diagnosed by swinging light test. When you alternate the flashlight.. The affected pupil ( less number of afferent fibres ) has a release phenomenon and dilates instead of constricts. The affected pupil initially constricts..But when you swing the flashlight repeatedly it dilates. The pic hasn't shown frequent swinging. And the pupil remains dilated in the first go when the light is shown. So there is no relative afferent defect.

I haven't heard of the release phenomenon, I've thought it's because relative to the normal eye, the disease eye appears to dilate. It always constricts but because you compare it with the normal eye, it seems to dilate.

But why do we call it relative? The direct being present and the indirect being absent?

I dont think we call it relative cause efferent is intact. We call it relative cause, relative to the normal eye..The affected eye has reduced optic nerve fibres. This is done to detect early loss of fibres in optic neuritis.

I'm such type of patient. I mean my left optic nerve is affected.

Really? How were you diagnosed and when?

I met with an accident. It was a severe injury on left  eye. 3rd nerve got damaged at first. Doctors said it's severe. It will heal with time. But doctors were not sure it will heal completely or not.

Oh I'm so sorry!
Can you see?

After 1 yr, I again went for checkup.. Doc said 3rd nerve is alright now but optic nerve is affected due to increased stress. Now, I have only partial vision left eye. It's 6/24 (Normal is 6/6)
And it'll not heal completely for whole life.

Optic field shows that the person can't see through different angles with the defective eye. That's why, it's called Partial Vision.
Because of damage to optic nerve.. Healing depends upon the degree of damage. Meconerv Forte is the medicine for that.. But chances of complete healing are rare..

Difficulties make us more strong! Just keep going no matter what.

Yeah, of course. Thanks!

Saturday, February 28, 2015

Study group discussion: Marcus gunn jaw winking syndrome and Ptosis

Interesting one - congenital ptosis associated with winking motion of the affected eyelid on the movement of the jaw. Known as Marcus gunn jaw winking syndrome.

On opening, side ward movements of jaw, increase of palpebral aperture!

Usually jaw movement to opposite side! Jaw winking.

What are the causes of Ptosis?

Neurologic causes of Ptosis include Horner's syndrome, in which the pupil is constricted, and third nerve palsy, in which there are abnormalities of eye movements and the pupil may be dilated. Local causes include congenital and acquired disorders of the levator muscle complex and tumors and infections of the eyelid. Myasthenia should always be considered.

Study group discussion: Medial medullary syndrome and crossed paralysis

Which of the following are clinical features of medial medullary syndrome?

A. Ipsilateral numbness of arm and trunk
B. Horners syndrome
C. Ipsilateral 12th cranial nerve palsy
D. Contralateral pyramidal tract sign

Study group discussion: Water intoxication syndrome

Water intoxication syndrome! I remember this from first year physiology!

How does water intoxication syndrome work? How much water does the person have to take?

The water that causes intoxication is mostly through intravenous fluids. I doubt a human being would have the capacity to drink enough water to cause an intoxication orally. I have heard of psychiatric disorders associated with a high water consumption though.

But if you're looking for a number - it's 16 ml/min

If you consume that much in any amount of time, you'll have exceeded intake more than the maximal urine flow.

Ummm, got it! it makes more sense than what I was thinking hahaha

Surely, drinking too much water would cause vomiting or something before the body would allow itself to become intoxicated?
Or massive impermeability of the kidney nephrons?

Does drinking too much water cause vomiting?   How permeable is the upper alimentary canal to water?  Could a large amount of water be absorbed before it reaches the stomach?

Too much water does cause vomiting! The most common symptoms suffered by this group were changes in mental status, emesis, nausea, and seizures. Source: http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC1770067/

I think there have been documented cases of people drinking enough water to die.  I imagine it's very difficult, though, and therefore rare.

Mostly psychiatric patients.

Water intoxication also occurs in SIADH and surgical trauma.

Risk factors include low body mass (infants), endurance sports, competitive drinking or latrogenic.
Treatment normally follows strict fluid restriction. In more serious cases, diuretics or vasopressin receptor antagonists are given.

Similar to SIADH treatment!

You know the artist Andy Warhol? He died of water intoxication!

Oh.

Study group discussion: Drug therapy for asthma

Which is the physiological antagonist of histamine?

Acetylcholine?

No.

It's ephedrine or adrenaline.

Which are the classes of drugs used for acute control of asthma?

B 2 agonists.

Epinephrine.

Yes, epinephrine.. But that too comes under b2 agonist.

Steroids?

No, steroids is for long term control

Two more classes of drugs!

Methylxanthine? Theophylline!
Montelukast?
Ipratropium!

Yup. Second class is theophylline or aminophyline. The third class is anti-cholinergics.

But not montelukast..That's also for chronic use.

What is the function of montelukast?

Leukotriene receptor antagonist!

Leukotrienes when binding to their receptors it cause bronchoconstriction. Monteluekast used in maintenance therapy of asthma. But not useful in acute exacerbation.

Mast cell stabilizers, that is, ketotifen and sodium chromoglycate?

Mast cell stabilizers are also chronic for use.

And IgE antibody? Omalizumab?

That too for chronic use.

Even MgSO4 is used in acute management of asthma.

Yup.

Next one.

Why does use of aspirin cause asthma?

Arachidonic acid forms two type of substances via the cyclo-oxygenase and lipo-oxygenase pathways. Aspirin inhibits the cyclooxygenase pathway.
Hence, all of the arachidonic acid gets diverted to lipo-oxygenases.
And if you remember L4, B4 are the major mediators of acute attack of asthma.

Oh yeah.. That's why leukotriene antagonists are used, they inhibit LT C4 , D4

Exactly.

There are the major cause of bronchoconstriction!

As cyclo cycle is inhibited..arachidonic acid is used more in lipo cycle!

LT antagonists act on cysLT1!

Study group discussion: Low molecular weight heparin vs unfractionated heparin

Something regarding heparins! So which one is better to use? LMWH or UFH? Why?

LMWH (Low molecular weight heparin)

Why?

Less incidence of thrombocytopenia with LMWH!
Better bioavailability, t1/2 , APTT not affected.

Right. Why APTT not affected?

Because LMWH has more predictable pharmacokinetics and anticoagulant effect, LMWH is recommended over unfractionated heparin for patients with massive pulmonary embolism.

Because LMWH acts only on AT3... Does not have the scaffolding effect of UFH.

On which part it doesn't act?
LMWH doesn't affect on thrombin..

Yes! That's the answer!

LMWH acts on AT3 only and doesn't affect thrombin.

UFH acts by 2 mechanisms
1. On AT3
2. By providing a scaffolding on which AT3 can interact with Thrombin

In LMWH, the second effect is absent, hence less interference...

Yes!! Correct!!

Which situation you would prefer UFH?

For cardiac surgeries, UFH is preferred as it can be titrated dose - by - dose with protamine sulphate.

Cardiopulmonary bypass.

Why?

Cardiopulmonary bypass....Because it's effects can easily be reversed fully by protamine. And its more effective.

Exactly! Any conditions with high risk of bleeding we prefer UFH.

Yep. Cause we will be able to reverse if we give more heparin by giving protamine sulphahte same is not possible with LMWHs.

Why?

Because action of LMWH cannot be reversed completely..

Yes, correct. It's because of the molecular weight.

So which test would you like to do before deciding whether to give UFH or LMWHs?

Any other conditions?

Ok so in cases of advanced renal failure UFH are preferred over LMWHs

Now tell me why?

No idea.. Please explain!

So we would check creatinine before starting heparin

This was the test I was taking about! LMWHs are excreted renally.

Right...UFH is metabolised by liver

On the other hand UFHs are cleared by reticuloendothelial system.

Good work guys! Hope it helped!

Yes, thanks a lot!

What about pregnancy?

Are UFH still preferred or do you give LMWH?

The major limiting factor is the cost or HIT. Heparin is still ruling the world and saving millions of lives.

Also i heard..senior doctors still prefer UFH, inspite of LMW

Ummm!! I would say LMWHs are much better!! Many trials have proved that! It's only in certain scenarios that UFHs are preffered. Nobody wants to keep monitoring APTT so just making the life easy LMWHs are good!!

Yeah. But they are more experienced in using UFH.
This was told by our residents. If a senior external asks you whether UFH or LMWH is better.. Be diplomatic in your answer.

Ohh! Yeah that can be the thing!

Updated later:
And also an addition to a previous discussion on oral anti-coagulants. Why heparin is given for the initial 5 to 7 days, when warfarin has already been started?
One reason is the preformed coagulant factors need to get depleted before warfarin starts taking effect. The other reason is that in the initial days warfarin acts as a prothombotic. Cause it depletes protein c and protein s!

Study group discussion: Fixed specific gravity

What is fixed specific gravity? Like what is the cause?

Because of renal failure, the remaining functional nephrons undergo compensatory structural and hypertrophic changes,these compensatory changes result in urine that is almost isotonic with plasma.  Therefore, a patient experiencing renal failure will present with specimens measuring the same, or fixed, specific gravity regardless of water intake

Thanks! Is there any value associated with it? Numerals?

Low specific gravity in renal failure, which results in a fixed specific gravity is between 1.007 and 1.010.

Study group discussion: Fluoroquinolones

Fluoroquinolones with
maximum phototoxicity -  sparfloxacin
100% bioavailibity - pefloxacin
Highest efficacy against tuberculosis - moxifloxacin

I don't know what is the meaning of 100 % bioavailability.

100% bioavailability means no first pass metabolism. Usually achieved on IV administering.

Study group discussion: Beta blockers

Give me two reasons why..you don't give beta blockers to diabetics.

They mask the hypoglycemic symptoms

First reason correct.

Hint - It is something to do with the liver and beta 2 receptors.

Glycogenolysis decrease.

Yup..The beta 2 receptors stimulate the glycogen breakdown and glycogenolysis.

So if you give a nonselective beta blocker.. Not only will the patient not feel the coming signs of hypoglycemia but also the liver will fail to release glucose in the blood.

Side effects of beta blockers?

Bradycardia
Breathlessness is due to bronchoconstriction
Rise in lipid level

Why won't you prescribe a beta blocker to a young man?

Sexual distress? Not sure!

Sexual dysfunction..Correct!

Vivid dreams and insomnia, and sexual dysfunction is due to beta blockers central action on the brain. They cross the blood brain barrier.

In which type of arrhythmias are beta blockers especially indicated?
The ones atrial in origin.

In which type of arrhythmia beta blockers are contraindicated?

Heart blocks.

Why so?

Cause they reduce the heart rate further.. A side effect of beta blockers is to decrease AV nodal conduction and precipitate asystole. In other words, they increase the refractory period of AV nodal cells.

Study group discussion: Locked in syndrome and total locked in syndrome

What's locked in syndrome and total locked in syndrome?

The patient is conscious, well oriented to time, place and person but is unable to carry out any voluntary movement along with loss of reflexes. Everyone else thinks the patient to be in a comatose / coma state.

Some retained cranial nerve reflexes with eye movements to communicate with no limb movement.

Yes! But in total locked in syndrome, there's no eye movement.

In locked in syndrome, I think patient communicates through blinking of eyes.

Yes. But in total locked in syndrome, they cannot.

Study group discussion: Cool fact about GLP 1 agonists

Antidiabetic derived from lizard?

It's exenatide! GLP-1 agonist.

From the gila monster, is it?

Exactly!

Is it not given orally?

I hope not

No.. Parenteral.. Subcutaneous!

Also there are extended release of exenatide available. Taken as weekly injections.

Bydureon! Weird but true! Thank you!

Study group discussion: Side effects of thiazides

What are the side effects of thiazide diuretics?

Study group discussion: Drug causing hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

Exposure to which drug leads to infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?
Hint: One of the macrolides.

Erythromycin?

Yeah, they have found the  association in the research that was conducted!

http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/m/pubmed/12090829/

If administered in the infant, can cause hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Within 15 days of life, that is.

Interesting.