Sunday, November 18, 2018

Diabetic amyotrophy

Hello everyone!

Today, I will be talking about diabetic amyotrophy.

Diabetic amyotrophy has a lot of names!

It is also known as Bruns-Garland syndrome, diabetic myelopathy, proximal diabetic neuropathy, diabetic polyradiculopathy, diabetic motor neuropathy, diabetic radiculoplexopathy, diabetic lumbosacral plexopathy, and diabetic LRPN.

Diabetic amyotrophy typically occurs in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The traditional features include the acute, asymmetric, focal onset of pain followed by weakness involving the proximal leg, with associated autonomic failure and weight loss. Progression occurs over months and is followed by partial recovery in most patients.

The diagnosis of diabetic amyotrophy is mainly based upon the presence of suggestive clinical features in a patient with known or newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus. Appropriate laboratory investigations, particularly electrodiagnostic studies, and neuroimaging in select patients, are useful to exclude other peripheral and central nervous system etiologies as a cause of the neurologic symptoms and signs.

No treatments are proven to be effective for diabetic amyotrophy or for idiopathic LRPN.

PS: Distal symmetric sensorimotor polyneuropathy is the most common type of diabetic neuropathy - it is characterized by a progressive loss of distal sensation correlating with loss of sensory axons, followed, in severe cases, by motor weakness and motor axonal loss. Classic "stocking-glove" sensory loss is typical in this disorder.

Source: UpToDate

That's all!


Zebra series: Lemierre's syndrome

Hello everyone!

Let's talk about Lemierre's syndrome today.

Lemierre's syndrome is characterized by disseminated abscesses and thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein after infection of the oropharynx. The predominant pathogen is a gram-negative anaerobic bacillus, Fusobacterium necrophorum.

That's the Zebra for the day!


Saturday, November 17, 2018

True or False #8 Lower GI Bleed

1. Angiodysplasia is a high volume arterial bleed. T or F

2. Diverticulosis is a low volume arterial bleed. T or F



Angiodysplasia  more often than not involves low volume venous bleeding.

Angiodysplasias are composed of ectatic, dilated, thin-walled vessels that are lined by endothelium alone or endothelium along with small amounts of smooth muscle. Studies in which casts of angiodysplasias were made by injecting a silicone material demonstrated that the most prominent feature in angiodysplasias is the presence of dilated, tortuous submucosal veins.
Small arteriovenous communications are also present and are due to incompetence of the precapillary sphincter. Enlarged arteries may be seen in larger angiodysplasias and may be associated with arteriovenous fistulas, which explains why bleeding can be brisk in some patients.
Histologic confirmation is often difficult. When obtained, it shows dilated vessels in the mucosa and submucosa, sometimes covered by only a single layer of surface epithelium.


Diverticular bleeding involves high volume arterial bleed

Diverticular bleeding — As a diverticulum herniates, the penetrating vessel responsible for the wall weakness at that point becomes draped over the dome of the diverticulum, separated from the bowel lumen only by mucosa. Over time, the vasa recta is exposed to injury along its luminal aspect, leading to eccentric intimal thickening and thinning of the media. These changes may result in segmental weakness of the artery, predisposing to rupture into the lumen. Diverticular bleeding typically occurs in the absence of diverticulitis

Wednesday, November 14, 2018

Authors' diary: Internist's disease


We had an interesting morning report today and I learnt this from Dr. L (L for Legend!)

Zebra series: Stauffer syndrome


I'll be talking about Stauffer syndrome today!

Authors' diary: Zebra series


I am starting a Zebra Series on Medicowesome.

Monday, November 12, 2018

True or False #7

1.Depression increases the risk of morbidity and mortality in Cardiovascular disease. T or F

2. Patients with Cardiovascular disease are more likely to develop Depression. T or F

True or False #6

1. Nightmare is a REM sleep behavior disorder. T or F

2. Night Terror is a REM sleep behavior disorder. T or F


1. True

Things you should REMember for Nightmare disorder are :


Second half of the night

Responsive to comfort

REMembers the dream

2. False

Night terrors:  Abrupt arousals from sleep (panicked scream, terror, autonomic arousal, unresponsive to comfort)

- Little or no dream recall

- Amnesia for episodes

Sleep is a gift, always be grateful for it.

True or False #5

1. Narcolepsy exhibits a reduced REM latency. T or F


1. True

Narcolepsy: depletion of hypocretin secreting neurons in lateral hypothalamus that are involved in maintaining wakefulness

Diagnostic: recurrent lapses into sleep or napping several times in the same day, >3 times a week for >3mo. and at least 1 of the following
-Cataplexy: Conscious of bilateral loss of muscle tone precipitated by emotions or abnormal facial movement (without emotional triggers)

-Hypocretin - 1 (orexin A) deficiency in CSF

- REM sleep latency <15 minutes

-Sleep attacks


-Hypnagogic or hypnopompic hallucinations

-Sleep paralysis

Dx: Shortened REM sleep latency on polysomnografy
Low levels of hypocretin 1 in CSF

You may feel weak, you may fall down, say no to Cataplexy, say yes to CATA GETUP!!

True or False #4

1. Imaging is contraindicated in pregnancy for diagnosing latent TB. T or F

2. Check for latent TB before prescribing Infliximab. T or F


1. False

Diagnostic evaluation after positive test — Patients with a positive TST or IGRA must undergo clinical evaluation to rule out active tuberculosis. This includes evaluation for symptoms (eg, fever, cough, weight loss) and radiographic examination of the chest (with appropriate shielding), regardless of gestational age.

Patients with a positive TST or IGRA with no evidence of active TB may be presumed to have latent TB.

2. True

Toxicity of Infliximab includes :

Respiratory infection (possible reactivation of latent TB)



Last man standing wins. Keep grinding.

True or False #3

1. A high potassium diet, decreases risk of kidney stone. T or F

2. Increase Sodium intake  for reducing kidney stones. T or F


1. True

A high potassium diet decreases urinary calcium excretion.

Foods rich in potassium enhance urinary Citrate excretion, likely from urinary alkalization, forming soluble calcium Citrate and thereby preventing stone formation

2. False

Decrease the sodium intake

So that when sodium is reabsorbed by the nephron, calcium is also passively reabsorbed and hence decreased calcium in urine.

You are your own Kingdom, pick up the Crown.

True or False #2

1. Herpangina involves the anterior oropharynx with grey vesicles and ulcers. T or F

2. Pleurodynia is also known as Bornholm disease. T or F


1. False

Herpangina is caused by Coxsackievirus and involves the posterior oropharynx

Herpetic gingivostomatitis caused by HSV involves the anterior oropharynx and grey vesicles and ulcers

2. True

Pleurodynia — Pleurodynia is an acute enteroviral illness characterized by fever and paroxysmal spasms of the chest and abdominal muscles . Most cases occur during localized summer outbreaks among adolescents and adults. Regional and nationwide outbreaks involving a large number of older children and young adults have been reported at infrequent intervals, often separated by decades. The role of the group B coxsackieviruses, the most important cause of epidemic pleurodynia, was established in 1949 . Other agents rarely implicated in pleurodynia include echovirus serotypes 1, 6, 9, 16, and 19 and group A coxsackievirus serotypes 4, 6, 9, and 10 .

Pleurodynia can mimic more serious diseases, including bacterial pneumonia, pulmonary embolus, myocardial infarction, acute surgical abdomen, and herpes zoster infection. Most patients are ill for four to six days. Children have milder disease than adults, who are often confined to bed.

True or False #1

1. Vareniciline increases the risk of suicide and depression. T or F
2. Vareniciline increases the risk of CVS events. T or F

Saturday, November 10, 2018

Facebook: ANM registration


In a subcenter population, Crude birth rate is 20. What is minimum expected number of pregnencies registered with ANM?

1) 110
2) 120
3)  55
4) 100

Answer within 24 hours.

Answer is Option 3)

Let's get to this tricky question.

Total subcentre population is 5000.
Total CBR =20 per 1000 mid year  population.
Hence, 20/1000* 5000
=100 births.

Now here comes the tricky part.

Abortion and still birth accounts for 10% wasted pregnencies.
So 100+10 (10% of total births)
As per rule, ANM should have 50% registration, therefore 110/2=55
Approximately C) 60

That's all.

-Demotional bloke.

Thursday, November 8, 2018

Management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis

Hi guys! Let’s look at how we manage one of the the most dreaded medical emergencies; a complication of Diabetes Mellitus type 2.

[Please click on the image to enhance it]

- Patients with DKA have a triad of hyperglycaemia, ketosis and metabolic acidosis and they are severely dehydrated due to osmotic diuresis.
- Those with altered sensorium or pH < 7.0 require intensive care. A comprehensive flow sheet of changes in vital signs, fluid intake/output and lab values must be maintained.
- Despite a bicarbonate deficit, most DKA patients often do not require bicarbonate replacement but may be given if arterial pH < 7.0
- Serum phosphate, magnesium and calcium may rarely need supplementation.
- Patient education is of utmost importance to prevent future recurrences.

Happy studying!
- Ashish Singh.

Assessment and plan: New onset atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response


Here is case one for the A&P series!

Assessment and plan: 99 yo M with PMH of ... admitted for ... is being evaluated for new onset atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response.

Authors' diary: Assessment and plan

Hey everyone!

As a medical student rotating in the US, I would have a tough time "typing" the assessment and plan. I would have it straight in my head but putting it all into words was difficult. I guess because I came from a different medical system where we don't write assessment and plan in our notes.

Tuesday, November 6, 2018

Ventricular arrhythmia notes


Anti-Ro/SSA antibodies and neonatal lupus

Hello everyone!

Did you know? Anti-Ro/SSA antibodies are associated with neonatal lupus (congenital heart block (CHB), neonatal transient skin rash, hematological and hepatic abnormalities).

How do I remember this? 

Thursday, November 1, 2018

Algorithmic Management of Organophosphate Poisoning

Hey guys, this whiteboard provides a general overview of how to manage patients with OrganoPhosphorous Compounds (OPC) poisoning.

      [Please click on the image to enhance it]

*Use of benzodiazepines has been associated with decreased mortality and morbidity, even in the absence of convulsions.

Signs of atropinization refer to the target end-points for atropine therapy and includes:
- Clear chest on auscultation, no wheeze
- Heart rate >80 beats/min
- Systolic Blood Pressure >90 mmHg
- Dry axillae
- Pupils no longer pin-point (miotic)

Early treatment with oximes is necessary before phosphorylated cholinesterase enzymes undergo “aging” and become resistant to reactivation (due to loss of their alkyl group).

That would be all.
Happy studying!

- Ashish Singh.
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