http://www.medicowesome.com/2017/03/pathophysiology-of-myopathy-caused.html
x
-Upasana Y. :)
Hello guys! Here are some important facts about Brain Abscess.
Most Common site: Frontal lobe
Sequence of involvement: Frontal lobe > Temporal lobe > Parietal Lobe > Occipital lobe.
Most Common site of Brain Abscess in Tetralogy of Fallot: Parietal Lobe.
Most Common site of Brain Abscess in CSOM: Temporal lobe (Mastoiditis).
Most Common organisms involved are Anaerobic bacteria > Staphylococcus aureus > Streptococcus pyogenes.
Empirical therapy: Vancomycin + Ceftriaxone + Metronidazole for 4 to 8 weeks.
I hope that it's helpful to you.
Thank you!
MD Mobarak Hussain (Maahii)
Hello friends,
Today let's memorise the branches of subclavian artery.
The mnemonic is VITamin 'C ' and 'D'
Here VIT corresponds to branches arising from first part.
'C' from second part.
'D' from third part of subclavian artery.
So from first part:
V - Vertebral
I - Internal thoracic artery
T - Thyrocervical trunk or Thyroscapulocervical trunk( this makes our task easy to memorize branches of this trunk)
Thyroscapulocervical - Gives rise to 3 arteries:
Thyro -- Inferior thyroid artery
Scapulo -- suprascapular artery
Cervical - superficial cervical artery.
From second part:
C - Costocervical trunk which gives rise to superior intercostal artery and deep cervical artery.
From third part:
D - Dorsal scapular artery.
Sometimes, instead of superficial cervical and dorsal scapular arteries arising as 2 separate arteries, there is a single branch which arises from 1 st part of subclavian artery that is Transverse cervical artery.
This artery divides into superficial ascending branch and deep descending branch as shown in the flow chart below.
Thanks for reading and do correct me if there is anything wrong.
Madhuri Reddy (Madhu)
Hello!
Here's a mnemonic to remember the features of Hypervitaminosis A.
The mnemonic is, "H.A.R.D. Puzzle."
H - Hepatosplenomegaly, Hair sparse, Hyperostosis
A - Anemia, Anorexia
R - Really painful bones
D - Dry skin
Puzzle - Pseudotumor cerebri
Thank you.
MD Mobarak Hussain (Maahii)
Here are some high yield points about Necrotizing Enterocolitis.
1. It is the most common life threatening emergency of gastrointestinal tract in neonates.
2. Triad of - Intestinal ischemia, enteral nutrition and bacterial translocation.
3. Distal part of Ileum and proximal segment of colon are most frequently involved.
4. Coagulation necrosis is the characteristic histological finding in the intestinal specimens in Necrotizing Enterocolitis.
5. Pneumatosis intestinalis (air in the bowel) is diagnostic on X-ray.
6. Portal venous gas shadow is a sign of severe Necrotizing Enterocolitis on X-ray.
7. Most important risk factor is Prematurity.
8. Pneumoperitoneum is a sign of advanced NEC with perforation.
These points should help you in quick revision.
Thank you!
MD Mobarak Hussain (Maahii)
Subtypes of lung cancer:-
1. Squamous cell cancer-
Most common variant in India.
Smoking is a risk factor.
Central in location.
Local growth is surgically resectable.
Cavity formation is seen.
2. Adenocarcinoma-
Most common variant of lung cancer overall.
Most common lung cancer among non smokers.
Peripheral in location.
Transbronchial spread i.e. it arises at one lobe and spreads to the another lobe.
3. Small cell carcinoma/Oat cell carcinoma-
Most aggressive variant.
Smoking is a risk factor.
Central in location.
It exhibits micrometastasis.
It has worst prognosis.
4. Large cell carcinoma-
Observed in Non smokers.
Peripheral in location.
This is associated with Estrogen production which manifests as Gynecomastia.
I hope this will help you to distinguish between the various subtypes.
Thank you
-Md Mobarak Hussain (Maahii)
Here are some high yielding MCQ points on arrhythmia
Most common arrhythmia mechanism is re-entry.
Most common sustained arrhythmia is atrial fibrillation.
Most common benign rhythm identified is atrial premature contraction.
Most common arrhythmia in COPD patient is multifocal atrial tachycardia.
Post operative atrial fibrillation is managed with landiolol hydrochloride.
Atrial fibrillation getting converted to ventricular fibrillation is seen with accessory pathway conducting antegradely like Bundle of Kent in WPW syndrome.
VT storm or electrical storm is 3 or more separate episodes of VT within 24 hours.
Most commonly identified arrhythmia in cardiac arrest patient is ventricular fibrillation.
Most common cause of Sudden death in HCM is polymorphic VT/Ventricular fibrillation VF.
Thank you
-Md Mobarak Hussain (Maahii)
Mnemonic to remember the Viral Exanthems of childhood
ME gave ROSE to my BELLA after eating CHICKEN at 5 PM.
ME =MEasles
ROSE= ROSEola
BELLA = ruBELLA
CHICKEN = CHICKEN Pox
5 P= 5th disease (Parvovirus)
Thank you!
-Md Mobarak Hussain (Maahii)
1. Why do we get " Megaloblasts" in Megaloblastic anaemia?
2. Why we get anaemia in Megaloblastic anaemia?
Megaloblastic anaemia is called so due to presence of " Megaloblasts" in bone marrow.
What are " Megaloblasts" They're gigantic, abnormally BIG RBC-precursors seen in bone marrow. WHY do we see them ?
It needs some conceptual understanding.
Normally, RBC-precursors are big cells which divide rapidly as they mature & become progressively smaller as they divide while maturing towards mature-form of RBCs. Now, the problem begins in Megaloblastic anaemia that this cell-division is impaired due to lack of nutrients ( Folate & Vitamin B12). Vit B12 & Folate are critical for normal DNA synthesis & cell maturation. It's also described by a complex -term called " Nuclear-Cytoplasmic Asynchrony".
As DNA-synthesis is impaired, nuclear maturation of RBC-precursors get slowed up & could not match with the pace of cytoplasmic maturity/development. This DEFECTIVE NUCLEAR MATURATION halts cell-division & those big "MEGA" RBC-precursors remain as Big, MEGA, gigantic " Megaloblasts" in bone marrow giving the name as " Megaloblastic anaemia". Moreover, these " Megaloblasts" do NOT mature enough to get released into the peripheral blood & most RBC-precursors undergo " apoptosis " or apoptotic-death in bone marrow ..this causes anaemia in Megaloblastic anaemia.
Hope this helps some of you to understand the basic concepts.
-Md Mobarak Hussain (Maahii)
Clinical evaluation of a case of Pseudophakia.
Pseudophakia is a term used to describe the condition wherein an artificial intraocular lens is implanted after surgery for cataract.
On history - History of cataract surgery present.
On examination -
1) Deep Anterior Chamber (the posterior support for the iris is lost as the IOLs are thinner that the natural lens)
2) Conjunctival flap and subconjunctival hemorrhage ( seen only in recent cases)
3) Scleral/ Corneal incision and scar.
4) Iridodonesis (tremulous iris)
5) Jet black pupil
6) Shimmering light reflex from the IOL.
Oculocardiac Reflex/Aschner phenomenon.
This is one of the trigeminovagal reflexes produced on digital massage of eye. Digital massaging of the eyeball is done to lower intraocular pressure after producing a retrobulbar or a peribulbar block. But rarely....this event is followed by cardiac depression, asystole and even death. The afferent is by the ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve which relays in the visceral motor nucleus of the vagus nerve. The efferent is carried by the parasympathetic vagus nerve to the heart. It is most commonly seen in pediatric cases during squint surgery.
It is not seen very commonly in adults and in other surgeries as the procedure would involve just one eye and massaging of this eye is not sufficient to produce bradycardia normally.
Treatment: atropine or glycopyrrolate . Cardiopulmonary resuscitation might be needed in severe cases.
Here's a short overview of Bulbar and Pseudobulbar palsy !
If there is a lesion is at the level of Medulla - affecting the motor neurons : The nuclei of the cranial nerves - you get LMN Palsy features - Flaccid paralysis of 9 10 11 12 Cranial nerves. This is called a 'Bulbar palsy' as the bulb (Medulla) is involved in isolation.
Now , essentially when the fibres supplying the motor neurons of the bulb (your Medulla) are affected themselves - that is any neurons above the nucleus of the nerve - it's a UMN lesion. So you get 9 10 11 12 UMN palsy - Spastic paralysis.
This would be Pseudo-bulbar as same CN involved but lesion is above the Medulla
So Pseudobulbar you'd have a hyper active gag reflex while it'll be absent in Bulbar.(Mediated by 9th cranial nerve).
You'd have a Hot potato like speech in Pseudobulbar as your vocal muscles of larynx and tongue are spastic. - (10th and Cranial 11th. )
While you'd see a nasal twang in Bulbar (also called Donald duck speech)
As your soft palate doesn't abut against the nasal cavity (due to LMN flaccid paralysis). Also causing nasal Regurgitation of food in Bulbar.
So they both essentially present with 9 10 features and some of the 11 12. Hence one is Pseudo and the other is true Bulbar.
Psuedobulbar would also have emotional problems. Called Pseudobulbar affect (as the higher fibres are involved - lesions are generally multiple infarcts in the cortex).
A few important causes :
Psuedobulbar palsy :
- Vascular = B/L Frontal lobe lesion , B/L Pontine stroke , Vascular dementia = Multi infarct dementia.
- Central Pontine Myelinolysis
- Degenerative = Multiple sclerosis , Motor neuron disease
- Cerebral Palsy
_________________________________
Bulbar palsy :
- Guillian Barre Syndrome
- Polio
- Motor neuron Disease
- B/L Medullary infarction
Hoping this helped !
Happy studying guys !
And stay awesome !!
~ A.P.Burkholderia.
Which of the following electrolysi abnormalities will you see in tumor lysis syndrome?
Answer either high, normal or low for each of these - calcium, phosphate, potassium, uric acid.
Answers:
Labs in tumor lysis syndrome -
Hypocalcemia
Hyperuricemia
Hyperphosphatemia
Hyperkalemia
Why?
When cancer cells lyse, they release potassium, phosphorus, and nucleic acids, which are metabolized into hypoxanthine, then xanthine, and finally uric acid.
This leads to:
Hyperkalemia can cause serious — and occasionally fatal — dysrhythmias.
Hyperphosphatemia can cause secondary hypocalcemia, leading to neuromuscular irritability (tetany), dysrhythmia, and seizure, and can also precipitate as calcium phosphate crystals in various organs (e.g., the kidneys, where these crystals can cause acute kidney injury).
Uric acid can induce acute kidney injury not only by intrarenal crystallization but also by crystal-independent mechanisms, such as renal vaso-constriction, impaired autoregulation, decreased renal blood flow, oxidation, and inflammation.
Crystal-induced tissue injury occurs in the tumor lysis syndrome when calcium phosphate, uric acid, and xanthine precipitate in renal tubules and cause inflammation and obstruction.
That's all!
-IkaN
A high RBC count combined with a low mean volume is seen in:
1. Thalassemia minor, either alpha or beta
2. Polycythemia vera with iron deficiency
3. Secondary polycythemia (hypoxia) with incidental iron deficiency.
Differentiating thalassemia minor from polycythemia vera:
The RBC size distribution curves reliably distinguish between thalassemia minor and polycythemia with iron deficiency.
RDW is elevated in iron deficiency. It is normal in thalassemia minor.
That's all!
-IkaN
How do you differentiate Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS) from Bullous Impetigo (BI)?
The exfoliative toxins are restricted to the area of infection in BI. In SSSS, infection is diffuse.
In BI, bacteria can be cultured from the blister contents. Cultures from blisters are negative in SSSS.
Blood cultures are usually negative in SSSS (positive in BI).
In SSSS, Nikolsky sign is positive. It is negative in BI.
In BI, patients are usually not ill appearing.
That's all!
-IkaN
Mentally challenged people may have a squint as the frontal eye field in the brain cortex is involved in ocular movements as well. It also may explain why somebody's eyes go crazy when they're starting into nothingness.
That's all!
-Sushrut Dongargaonkar
Nontreponemal tests include:
Rapid plasma reagin (RPR)
Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL)
Toluidine Red Unheated Serum Test (TRUST)
Mnemonic:
Do not trust VDRL rapidly.
Features of non treponemal tests:
They are based upon the reactivity of serum from infected patients to a cardiolipin-cholesterol-lecithin antigen.
Used for initial syphilis screening due to their relatively low cost, ease of performance, and ability to be quantified for the purpose of following response to therapy.
Specific treponemal tests include:
Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS)
Microhemagglutination test for antibodies to T. pallidum (MHA-TP)
T. pallidum particle agglutination assay (TPPA)
T. pallidum enzyme immunoassay (TP-EIA)
Chemiluminescence immunoassay (CIA)
Features of treponemal tests:
Treponemal tests have been more complex and expensive to perform than nontreponemal tests. Thus, they have traditionally been used as confirmatory tests for syphilis when the nontreponemal tests are reactive.
Treponemal tests are qualitative only and are reported as "reactive" or "nonreactive"
Once a patient has a positive treponemal test, this test usually remains positive for life. Thus, these tests are generally not useful for confirming a diagnosis of syphilis in a patient with prior treated disease.
That's all!
-IkaN
Hey Awesomites
Patients with movement disorder such as the Parkinson's are at four-fold higher risk for malignant melanoma, and vice versa. This is likely due to mutual genetic, environmental and pathogenic ( immune system ) abnormalities and factors that they both share, as suggested by a research study at Mayo clinic.
( Source )
- Jaskunwar Singh
Hi awesomites!
Here's a short note on causes Dilated cardiomyopathy.
It's mostly idiopathic.
Other causes are:
1. G enetic Mutation
2. Myocarditis
3. Alcohol abuse
4. Drugs
5. Pregnancy
6. Hemochromatosis
Mnemonic. GMM ADPH
That's all :)
H@Mid
Hey guys!
Have y'll ever wondered why do babies have heart rates as high as 160s?
Answer:
Babies have a high proportion of Body Surface Area to heart than that in adults. Therefore, in order to maintain adequate blood flow, baby's "li'l heart" has to pump more often to cover the "large Body Surface Area"!
I hope y'll find this interesting!
Till then, stay awesome!
-Rippie
Both nasal encephalocele and nasal gliomas are congenital conditions in which there is herniation of glial tissues and meninges into the nasal cavity through the foramen cecum.
Both the masses are seen in the nasal cavity as bluish masses with nasal obstruction.
Nasal gliomas have no communication to the brain as the communication gets detached after the fusion of cranial bones in late IUL. Gliomas are firm and non compressible mass.
Encephalocele also presents as nasal mass with obstruction. The swelling increases in size in response to coughing. Most common site is occipital and then frontal.
Bilateral compression of the internal jugular vein also leads to the increase in the size of mass called as Frustenberg Test.
Frustenberg test is positive in encephalocele and negative in gliomas.
Investigation of choice for both is MRI.
Hope this helps!
Ashita Kohli