Authors' diary: Zebra series

Hello!

I am starting a Zebra Series on Medicowesome.

True or False #7

1.Depression increases the risk of morbidity and mortality in Cardiovascular disease. T or F

2. Patients with Cardiovascular disease are more likely to develop Depression. T or F

True or False #6

1. Nightmare is a REM sleep behavior disorder. T or F

2. Night Terror is a REM sleep behavior disorder. T or F

ANSWERS

1. True

Things you should REMember for Nightmare disorder are :

REM

Second half of the night

Responsive to comfort

REMembers the dream

2. False

Night terrors:  Abrupt arousals from sleep (panicked scream, terror, autonomic arousal, unresponsive to comfort)

- Little or no dream recall

- Amnesia for episodes

Sleep is a gift, always be grateful for it.

True or False #5

1. Narcolepsy exhibits a reduced REM latency. T or F

ANSWER

1. True

Narcolepsy: depletion of hypocretin secreting neurons in lateral hypothalamus that are involved in maintaining wakefulness

Diagnostic: recurrent lapses into sleep or napping several times in the same day, >3 times a week for >3mo. and at least 1 of the following
-Cataplexy: Conscious of bilateral loss of muscle tone precipitated by emotions or abnormal facial movement (without emotional triggers)

-Hypocretin - 1 (orexin A) deficiency in CSF

- REM sleep latency <15 minutes

Tetrad:
-Sleep attacks

-Cataplexy

-Hypnagogic or hypnopompic hallucinations

-Sleep paralysis

Dx: Shortened REM sleep latency on polysomnografy
Low levels of hypocretin 1 in CSF

You may feel weak, you may fall down, say no to Cataplexy, say yes to CATA GETUP!!

True or False #4

1. Imaging is contraindicated in pregnancy for diagnosing latent TB. T or F

2. Check for latent TB before prescribing Infliximab. T or F

ANSWERS

1. False

Diagnostic evaluation after positive test — Patients with a positive TST or IGRA must undergo clinical evaluation to rule out active tuberculosis. This includes evaluation for symptoms (eg, fever, cough, weight loss) and radiographic examination of the chest (with appropriate shielding), regardless of gestational age.

Patients with a positive TST or IGRA with no evidence of active TB may be presumed to have latent TB.

2. True

Toxicity of Infliximab includes :

Respiratory infection (possible reactivation of latent TB)

Fever

Hypotension

Last man standing wins. Keep grinding.

True or False #3

1. A high potassium diet, decreases risk of kidney stone. T or F

2. Increase Sodium intake  for reducing kidney stones. T or F

ANSWERS

1. True

A high potassium diet decreases urinary calcium excretion.

Foods rich in potassium enhance urinary Citrate excretion, likely from urinary alkalization, forming soluble calcium Citrate and thereby preventing stone formation

2. False

Decrease the sodium intake

So that when sodium is reabsorbed by the nephron, calcium is also passively reabsorbed and hence decreased calcium in urine.

You are your own Kingdom, pick up the Crown.

Bhopalwala. H

True or False #2

1. Herpangina involves the anterior oropharynx with grey vesicles and ulcers. T or F

2. Pleurodynia is also known as Bornholm disease. T or F

ANSWERS

1. False

Herpangina is caused by Coxsackievirus and involves the posterior oropharynx

Herpetic gingivostomatitis caused by HSV involves the anterior oropharynx and grey vesicles and ulcers

2. True

Pleurodynia — Pleurodynia is an acute enteroviral illness characterized by fever and paroxysmal spasms of the chest and abdominal muscles . Most cases occur during localized summer outbreaks among adolescents and adults. Regional and nationwide outbreaks involving a large number of older children and young adults have been reported at infrequent intervals, often separated by decades. The role of the group B coxsackieviruses, the most important cause of epidemic pleurodynia, was established in 1949 . Other agents rarely implicated in pleurodynia include echovirus serotypes 1, 6, 9, 16, and 19 and group A coxsackievirus serotypes 4, 6, 9, and 10 .

Pleurodynia can mimic more serious diseases, including bacterial pneumonia, pulmonary embolus, myocardial infarction, acute surgical abdomen, and herpes zoster infection. Most patients are ill for four to six days. Children have milder disease than adults, who are often confined to bed.

True or False #1

1. Vareniciline increases the risk of suicide and depression. T or F

2. Vareniciline increases the risk of CVS events. T or F

Facebook: ANM registration

#Medicowesome
#PSM

In a subcenter population, Crude birth rate is 20. What is minimum expected number of pregnencies registered with ANM?

1) 110
2) 120
3)  55
4) 100

Answer within 24 hours.

Answer is Option 3)

Let's get to this tricky question.

Total subcentre population is 5000.
Total CBR =20 per 1000 mid year  population.
Hence, 20/1000* 5000
=100 births.

Now here comes the tricky part.

Abortion and still birth accounts for 10% wasted pregnencies.
So 100+10 (10% of total births)
=110.
As per rule, ANM should have 50% registration, therefore 110/2=55
Approximately C) 60

That's all.

-Demotional bloke.

Authors' diary: CHADSVasc High

*talking about atrial fibrillation*

Management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis

Hi guys! Let’s look at how we manage one of the the most dreaded medical emergencies; a complication of Diabetes Mellitus type 2.

[Please click on the image to enhance it]

- Patients with DKA have a triad of hyperglycaemia, ketosis and metabolic acidosis and they are severely dehydrated due to osmotic diuresis.

- Those with altered sensorium or pH < 7.0 require intensive care. A comprehensive flow sheet of changes in vital signs, fluid intake/output and lab values must be maintained.

- Despite a bicarbonate deficit, most DKA patients often do not require bicarbonate replacement but may be given if arterial pH < 7.0

- Serum phosphate, magnesium and calcium may rarely need supplementation.

- Patient education is of utmost importance to prevent future recurrences.

Happy studying!

- Ashish Singh.

Assessment and plan: New onset atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response

Hello!

Here is case one for the A&P series!

Assessment and plan: 99 yo M with PMH of ... admitted for ... is being evaluated for new onset atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response.

Authors' diary: Assessment and plan

Hey everyone!

As a medical student rotating in the US, I would have a tough time "typing" the assessment and plan. I would have it straight in my head but putting it all into words was difficult. I guess because I came from a different medical system where we don't write assessment and plan in our notes.

Ventricular arrhythmia notes

Hello! 

Anti-Ro/SSA antibodies and neonatal lupus

Hello everyone!

Did you know? Anti-Ro/SSA antibodies are associated with neonatal lupus (congenital heart block (CHB), neonatal transient skin rash, hematological and hepatic abnormalities).

How do I remember this? 

Algorithmic Management of Organophosphate Poisoning

Hey guys, this whiteboard provides a general overview of how to manage patients with OrganoPhosphorous Compounds (OPC) poisoning.

      [Please click on the image to enhance it]

*Use of benzodiazepines has been associated with decreased mortality and morbidity, even in the absence of convulsions.

Signs of atropinization refer to the target end-points for atropine therapy and includes:
- Clear chest on auscultation, no wheeze
- Heart rate >80 beats/min
- Systolic Blood Pressure >90 mmHg
- Dry axillae
- Pupils no longer pin-point (miotic)

Early treatment with oximes is necessary before phosphorylated cholinesterase enzymes undergo “aging” and become resistant to reactivation (due to loss of their alkyl group).

That would be all.
Happy studying!

- Ashish Singh.

Role of BNP in acute exacerbation of COPD

Hello Awesomites!

Heart failure and COPD are common and they commonly co-exist in the same patient. Diagnosis may be difficult during acute exacerbation.

BNP/nT-pro-BNP is good Negative predictive value to rule out the presence of heart failure.

Spirometry is useful when the patient’s volume status is optimized. During acute HF exacerbation, diagnostic accuracy may be limited.

ECHO may be helpful to rule out systolic or diastolic dysfunction.

Why is it important to know?

Some therapies in COPD may be associated with worsening cardiac events in HF patients.

1) Oral steroids: - increased sodium and fluid retention.

2) Beta2 agonist: - increased HR and increased oxygen demand.

3) Aminophylline: - increased risk of arrhythmia.

You can further read about this in Link between COPD and HF
HAPPY STUDYING !
-Upasana Y. :)

IRIS (Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome)

Hello Awesomites!

In terms of understanding immunity, HIV and leprosy never fails to fascinate me.There is whole spectrum of change in response of immune system.

So let us begin with the immune system which begins to recover. (Fall down 7 times get up 8!)

Immune reconstitution inflammatory response abbreviated as IRIS is a condition seen in some cases of AIDS or immunosuppression, in which the immune system begins to recover, but then responds to a previously acquired opportunistic infection with an overwhelming inflammatory response that paradoxically makes the symptoms of infection worse.

There are 2 presentations:-

1. Paradoxical IRIS: worsening of symptoms of a known disease during ART

2. Unmasking IRIS: present of an occult opportunistic infection, in which disease that was not clinically apparent prior to ART, manifests during ART

Proper history:

-Time course of symptoms

 -History of Opportunistic infection,

-Recently diagnosed Opportunistic infections

-Treatment of Opportunistic infection: date of initiation, adherence, duration and clinical response

 -ART initiation date,

- Specific antiretroviral regimen,

-medication adherence,

-Previous history of ART

 -CD4 cell count and HIV viral load before ART initiation

 -Current CD4 cell count and HIV viral load,

The risks of corticosteroid therapy should be weighed against the severity of the IRIS manifestations and the potential benefits.Risks of corticosteroid therapy include the following:

-Hyperglycemia.
-Hypertension.
-Mental status changes.
-Avascular necrosis.
-Worsening of an existing infection.
-Predisposition to a new infection.

It teaches me something about "Balance".
-Upasana Y. :)

Facebook:ENT X-rays part - 1

#Medicowesome
#Ent

Which is the last sinus to appear radiologically on X-ray?
1) Maxillary sinus
2) Ethmoid sinus
3) Sphenoid sinus
4) Frontal sinus

Answer with detail explanation through blog in 12 hours.

So, this post is regarding our Facebook page question on ENT X-rays.
Correct answer is Option 4- Frontal sinus.

Let's get into some details and all of them are potential one liner questions.

Order of development of Paranasal sinus is
Maxillary > Ethmoid > Sphenoid > Frontal

I remember this order with mnemonic - "MESs Food"

Maxillary sinus and (Anterior) Ethmoid sinus are present at birth.
Maxillary sinus appears at 4-5 months of age radiologically.
(Anterior) Ethmoid appears at 1 year of age radiologically.

Sphenoid sinus: Development start at 2nd or 3rd year after birth and continues till adulthood. Making it last sinus to complete development.
It appears radiologically after 4 year of birth.

Frontal sinus: Development starts after 4 year of birth and completed at 13-14 years of age.
It appears radiologically after 6 years of birth.

Happy learning :)

-That's all

-Demotional bloke.

CHA2DS2-VASc Risk Score

Hello Awesomites !

You all must be familiar with the complications of atrial fibrillation (AF). The management of atrial fibrillation is centered on these complications.
Thromboembolism is caused by AF. CHA2DS2VASc score is to estimate stroke risk in AF patients and to start OACs (oral anticoagulants).
Previously, we have CHADS2 Score.

HEART FAILURE OR LVEF LESS THAN OR EQUAL TO 40%	1
HYPERTENSION	1
AGE MORE THAN OR EQUAL TO 75	2
DIABETES MELLITUS	1
STROKE,TIA or THROMBOEMBOLISM	2
VASCULAR DISEASE (PREVIOUS MI,PERIPHERAL ARTERY DISEASE, OR AORTIC PLAQUE)	1
AGE 65-74 YEARS	1
FEMALE SEX (BUT NOT A RISK FACTOR IF FEMALE SEX IS THE ONLY FACTOR)	1
MAXIMUM SCORE	9

SCORE 0	RECOMMEND NO THROMBOTIC THERAPY
SCORE 1	CONSIDER RISK/BENEFIT AND HAS-BLED SCORE TO AID DECISION OF ANTI-THROMBOTIC OR ANTI PLATELET THERAPY
SCORE 2	RECOMMEND OACs

HAS-BLED is a scoring system developed to assess 1-year risk of major bleeding in patients taking anticoagulants with atrial fibrillation.

-Upasana Y. :)

Studying for Step One

Studying for the USMLE can be a daunting task, especially when you're an International Medical Student/Graduate. Coming from a different background - culturally and educationally - the questions asked in these examinations reflect the health system and health needs of the US's population. Apart from the questions, the financial aspects of attaining residency in the United States may also be a setback for some. Overall, this journey is a test of patience and dedication to the profession and one's career goals.

Euvolemic hyponatremia algorithm

Just happened to create this image so I thought of sharing with you guys :)

-IkaN

Lab values Fishbone skeleton / Ishikawa Diagram in text

Hey, 

I was looking for this skeleton to manually put in the outside labs for my patient.

Why is the level of Vitamin B12 increased in CML?

Why is the level of Vitamin B12 increased in Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)?

Pathophysiology: The transport of vitamin B12 in the blood as well as hepatic uptake require the presence of transcobalamins (TCBs).

TCB types I (TCB I) and III (TCB III) ensure the binding of ∼80% of circulating vitamin B12.

ACHOO SYNDROME.

HELLO PEOPLEEEE!

Well this is not a medical joke or something that I made up. This syndrome is legit and very irritatting for the people who suffer from it. As said by Pryse Phillips the acronym is slightly forced but remains the best of the decade.

The acronym ACHOO is for Autosomal Dominant Compelling Helio-Opthalmic Outburst reflex which is basically sneezing in response to looking at a bright light, there can be a burst of 2-10 sneezes at a time.

Photic sneeze reflexes don't seem to make any sense at first. The purpose of sneezing is to clear unwanted irritants or germs from the nose. Bright light produces neither.

The phenomenon was first described in the 1950s, after a French doctor discovered several patients sneezing in response to the light of his ophthalmoscope, (the device doctors use to examine the retina). Further investigation revealed that it wasn't just any light that brought on the sneezing, but sudden flashes. These patients would reliably sneeze when quickly exposed sunlight, flash photography, and, in a few cases, even ultraviolet light.

There is no clear understanding on how photic sneez reflex works and hence a variety of theories have been proposed. 

For us its important to understand the basics of a normal sneez reflex arc.

The opthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve innervates the the nasal mucosa over the nasal septum and the anterior nasal passages. The afferent limb of the reflex arc is carried over the opthalmic nerve and the efferent limb is by the cranial nerves 5 and 7,9,10 and the motor nerves of the cervical and thoracic spinal cord.

The reflex centre is situated in the brainstem and upper spinal cord.

Any stimulation of the afferent limb of this reflex arc by dust or any foreign material sets the reflex arc in action which ultimately makes us sneez!

The primary clinical use of this sneez (sternutatory) reflex is a cross check on the corneal reflex.

Are there any other weird stimuli that cause people to involuntarily sneeze?

• Sneezing induced by feeling full. (One case study of a relatively normal 32-year-old man found that "fullness of the stomach immediately after meals invariably results in three or four uncontrollable sneezes."

• And the weirdest: For some, eating chocolate can induce some unwanted sneezes how barbaric.

Well I hope this information was helpful. So the next time you hear some sneezing (ACHOO!) do remember this phenomenon.

Let's Learn Together.
-Medha Vyas.
x

Question: Caloric test

#Medicowesome
#Ent

Q) Caloric test was done on right side with cold water and eyes were moved to opposite side. Which of the following correspond to interpretation of nystagmus in this test?

1) Eyes moves slowly to right
2) Eyes moves slowly to left
3) ‎Eyes moves rapidly to left
4) ‎Eyes moves rapidly to right

Answer in 24 hours with explanation of Caloric test.

Inverse glaucoma

In normal eye aqueous humour flow from ciliary body to anterior chamber. In Malignant glaucoma or Aqueous misdirection syndrome, aqueous humour escapes into posterior chamber. Now posterior chamber has two fluids - aqueous and vitreous. This mixture now push our lens forward. This leads to formation of shallow AC.

Now in this case if I give Pilocarpine then ciliary zonules will be slacked which will ultimately causes lens to move more anteriorly, leading to shallow AC.

Remember: Pilocarpine is DOC for acute congestive glaucoma and it is C/I in inverse glaucoma.

So I will need to give drugs which will cause tightening of ciliary zonules. This can happen when I will relax ciliary muscle. Now relaxation of ciliary muscles is done by cycloplegic drugs. Example - Atropine/ Homatropine.

Did you see the contrast?
Atropine is C/I in Acute ACG but it is DOC for inverse glaucoma!

Hope it helps!

That's all
-Demotional bloke

Congenital syphilis picmonic

This was submitted by Ri. Thanks girl!

With reference to this post: http://www.medicowesome.com/2017/03/buzz-words-for-congenital-syphilis.html

-IkaN 

Significance of ictal head turning in frontal and temporal lobe seizure

Hello Awesomites!

Let us begin.

My patient had an episode of seizure. As she was not aware during the episode I asked the one who saw her during the episode. She had head turning to one side.

The patient had other complain also but for time being I am focusing on this sign.

When you begin from symptoms to localization and then lateralization, you will get following answers.

Non versive head turning - Ipsilateral temporal lobe.

Forced (versive) head turning - Contralateral Frontal lobe.

I want to thank my professor.

I hope it will help you to be more observant during history taking.

-Upasana Y. :)

Question: Rhinoscleroma

#Medicowesome
#Ent

Which of the following feature(s) of rhinoscleroma is/are true except:-

1) Atrophy of nasal mucosa
2) Caused by fungus
3) Treatment by antifungal drug
4) Caused by bacteria
5) Causative organism may be cultured from biopsy material

Answer in 24 hours!

So correct options are option 2 and option 3.

Rhinoscleroma is bacterial chronic granulomatous infection caused by Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis or Frisch bacillus.

Mode of transmission: 

Not unknown

Pathology:

Starts in the nose and extend upto naso-pharynx, larynx, trachea and bronchi.

Clinical features:

1) Atrophic stage:

Foul-smelling prurulent nasal discharge and crusting.

2) Granulomatous stage:

"Woody nose" feel is seen in lower part of nose and upper lip. Nodules are painless and non-ulcerative.

3) Cicatrical stage:

Distortion of upper lip, adhesion in the nose, nasopharynx and stenosis of subglottis.

 Diagnosis:

 Presence of Mikulciz cells and Russell bodies 

1) Mikulicz cells: Macrophages containing central nuclues and vacuolated cytoplasm along with bacilli.

2) Russell bodies: Homogeneous eosinophilic inclusion bodies found in plasma cells.

Treatment:

Streptomycin and tetracycline given for 4-6 weeks and repeated.

Question: Rhinosporidiosis.

#Medicowesome
#Ent

In rhinosporidiosis, the following is true:-

1) Fungal granuloma
2) Grayish mass
3) Surgery is the treatment
4) Radiotherapy is treatment

Answer in 24 hours!

Correct option is 3 - Surgery is the treatment.

Let's know more about rhinosporidiosis.

It is a chronic granulomatous disease caused by "Rhinosporidium seeberi" affecting both humans and animals. Earlier it was considered to be fungal in origin but now it is considered to be Aquatic protozoa.

Life cycle: It occurs in three stages.

1) Trophic stage: In this stage, the individual cell is called as trophocyte.

It has following features
-One chitinous wall
-Clear cytoplasm
-Nucleus along with nucleolus

Now trophocyte starts dividing and froms a colony. This colony is packed inside a sac called as "Sporangium". The trophocyte inside is called as "Endospores"

2) Sporangium stage:

Sporangium, unlike earlier stage is lined by two membranes
-Outer Chitinous
-Inner Cellulose layer

3) Endospore release:

The endospores present inside exerts pressure on the sporangium and this leads to rupture of the sporangium. Released endospores acts as trophocyte further.

Mode of transmission:
Water contaminated by diseased animals.

Clinical features:

Most common sites involved: Nose and nasopharynx.

Other sites like lips, palate etc can also get affected.

In nose it is present as - leafy, polypoidal mass, pink to purple in color.
Can extent upto soft palate.
Bleeds easily on touching. So, we can also see blood tinged discharge.

Diagnosis: Biopsy 

Treatment: 

Complete excision with diathermy knife and cauterization of its base.

That's all

-Demotional bloke

Modified Allen test

Hello Awesomites! :D

Hope you guys are doing great. Assuming that you might have heard about ABG analysis I am discussing about Allen's test.

What is Allen's test?

Allen's test is done to assess the circulation of the hand (i.e. Radial and ulnar artery).

Procedure:-

The examiner apply the pressure to the wrist occluding the ulnar and the radial arteries. The patient then make the fist and open and close it several times. The hand should appear blanched by this time because the arteries has been occluded temporarily.

Now remove the pressure from ulnar artery. If the return of color occurs quickly, then test is considered to show a normal circulation.

If it take 5-15sec in flushing of palm then test is positive and ulnar artery is adequate to supply the arch, we can proceed with sample collection in this patient. If it takes >15 sec then choose alternative site. Alternative sites for access are brachial or femoral arteries, but these have several disadvantages.

Repeat the same procedure for radial artery.

Importance in:-

1. Volar wrist ganglion around the radial artery.

2. before doing ABG analysis.

Study more about it. 

-Upasana Y. 

Question: Chicken pox

#Medicowesome
#Microbiology
#PSM

Q) True about chicken pox are all except:

1) Caused by HSV-3
2) SAR is 90%
3) Superficial rash
4) Single stage of rash

Answer in 12 hours 

 Answer is 4) Single stage of rash

So, this post will help you remember manifestation of Chickenpox rash. You can also differentiate between Chickenpox and Smallpox rash using same

So for Chicken pox remember this mnemonic:-

DCP SPAReS Iron man ( Always Marvel fan!)

D= Dew drops appearance

CP= Centripetal appearance

S= Superficial and Uniocular 

P=Pleomorphic

A= Axilla and flexor surface affected

R=Rapid evolution

S=Spares palms and soles 

I=Inflammation around vesicles present

Since we have rapid evolution in chicken pox, scabs are formed after 4-7 days itself.

Smallpox rash appears exactly in an opposite manner of chickenpox rash.

Smallpox rash manifests as follow:-

Centrifugal appearence

Deep and Multilocular appearence

Non-pleomorphic

Axilla is spared and extensor compartment affected 

Slow evolution

Palms and soles are affected

No inflammation around vesicles

Since we have slow evolution in chicken pox, scabs are formed after 10-14 days itself.

-Demotional bloke

Question: Squint manifestations

#Medicowesome
#Ophthalmology

Question)

A patient presented with his head tilted towards right. On examination, he was having Left hypertropia which is increased on looking towards right or medially. The muscle which is mostly likely paralyzed is?
1) Left superior oblique
2) ‎Left inferior oblique
3) ‎Right superior oblique
4) ‎Right inferior oblique

Answer in 24 hours

Answer is 1) Left superior oblique

So, you can see above question is based on Park 3 steps method. I will try to simplify it as much as possible. Let us try to find out what essential information we get from above from above question. So I find three things.

-Left hypertropia.

-Increases on looking towards right.

-Head tilted towards right  (For compensating diplopia)

To proceed further, I want you to take care of two things .

1) Draw clinical eye movement diagram for squint not anatomical diagram

2) In this technique we go with parameters which increases diplopia for patients.

So, hold your horses and let us get started.

Step 1: Left hypertropia= Right hypotropia

So, basically you have to solve now question for two eyes instead of one. This is the same reason option 3 and option 4 could be right as well. So, when you draw clinical diagram for same you have to highlight muscles which are paralyzed leading to above criteria.

So, left hypertropia is caused by paralysis of the inferior muscles - Superior oblique and Inferior rectus.

In right hypotropia, superior muscles are paralyzed -Inferior oblique and Superior rectus. 

So our diagram will be as follow. We need to concentrate on four muscles only

Step 2: Now let us go to second clue. Diplopia increases on looking towards right. So, out of our four selected muscles let us see which muscles moves eyeball towards right.

 In right eye, it is Superior rectus.

In left eye, it is Superior oblique.

Our diagram will be as follow and your muscles will be narrowed down to two. Each from one eye.

Step 3: So this is final step. The End game. (Reminds me Taylor swift!)

  We have one last finding and that is patient's head is tilted towards right. Remember that this is compensatory method of patient for avoiding diplopia which actually suggests that patient is experiencing diplopia maximum when head is tilted towards left.

So in our last step we will be using clue as head tilted towards left! (Remember we go to maximum diplopia.)

So, this time hold your pencil in the centre of our clinical diagram and tilt it towards left. Obviously do this for both eyes individually. Simply like this

Now, this will narrow down your two muscles into one. Let us do it for right eye first. We will get muscle IO which is not among of our selected two muscles so discard it. Now go to left eye, do same over here. You will get answer as SO

Hope that makes your job easy as far as squint is considered.

-Demotional bloke

Transcription : A mnemonic to remember the RNA Polymerases

Here's a short mnemonic post for you!

Transcription is the process by which the DNA is converted into an RNA transcript ( Literally - the DNA is transcribed or written out as an RNA sequence).

The key enzyme needed for this process is RNA Polymerase.

In Eukaryotes , there are 3 different RNA Polymerases subtypes depending on which RNA they help code for. 

We know that Ribo Nucleic Acids or RNA can be mRNA - Messenger RNA , tRNA or Transfer RNA , rRNA - Ribsomal RNA or one of the small nuclear RNAs - micro RNA - miRNA / siRNA.

Here's a mnemonic to memorize which RNA Polymerase codes for which of these -

Mnemonic - R MIS T5 (Read as R Mistify)

RNA Polymerase I = rRNA
RNA Polymerase II = mRNA, miRNAs , siRNAs
RNA Polymerase III = tRNA , 5S rRNA

This form of RNA specificity is not found on the Prokaryotes - and they have just one RNA Polymerase that bears it all , for all types of RNA !

This has been a quick summary of transcription and a helpful mnemonic for you!

Hope was helpful.
Stay awesome !
Happy Studying!

~ A.P.Burkholderia

Question: Dengue and eye

#Medicowesome
#Ophthalmology

Q) In Dengue, all are seen w.r.t eye except:-

1) Cataract
2) Optic neuritis
3) Vitreous hemorrhage
4) Maculopathy

So, you basically cannot solve above problem if you don't know which portion dengue affects in eye.

Dengue affects posterior portion of the eye. So accordingly answer is
Cataract-Option 1

Some basics to cover over here.

Eyeball is divided into two segments or portion.

Anterior segment: Cornea to lens.
Volume - 0.31mL of Aqueous humor.

Posterior segment: Lens to retina.
Volume - 4mL of Vitreous humor.

Anterior segment is divided into two parts:-

Anterior chamber: Cornea to iris.
Volume- 0.25mL of Aqueous humor

Posterior chamber: Iris to lens.
Volume- 0.06mL of Aqueous humor

-Demotional bloke.

Question: Diabetic 3rd nerve palsy

Question:
In Diabetic 3rd nerve palsy all are seen except
A) Pupil dilation
B) Outward and downward gaze
C) Ptosis
D) Impaired pupillary reflex

Let us start with the basic.

Mnemonic for extraocular muscles nerve supply
LR6 SO4 Rest3

Lateral rectus is supplied by 6th nerve or abducence nerve and superior oblique by 4th nerve or trochlear nerve and rest all  muscles including LPS are supplied by 3rd muscle or  occulomotor nerve.

In pupillary reflex,
Afferent nerve: Optic nerve
Efferent nerve: Occulomotor nerve.

So in case of 3rd nerve palsy, we will have less or no actions of all EOM except lateral rectus and superior oblique.
So we will have downward gaze (due to superior oblique) and outward gaze (due to lateral rectus) and Ptosis (because LPS is supplied by 3rd nerve! ).
Pupillary reflex is also disturbed so option 4 is also ruled out.

Here is a trick in this question. In DM and HTN, microangiopathy is seen due to which central fibers are affected.
Central part do not contribute to pupillary reflex.
This leads to no pupil dilation. In case of surgical conditions and trauma, peripheral fibers are affected which causes impaired pupillary reflex or pupil dilation.

-Demotional bloke.

Apgar score in preterm infants

Hello Awesomites!

APGAR score-
This score tells you about the well being by evaluating cardiac,respiratory and nervous system of a newborn.

APGAR score of a preterm infants is always low. Because certain criteria in  APGAR are not met by preterm babies.

In preterm babies respiratory efforts,muscle tone,colour is variable.So your score will come less.

It is something that interests me.
May be in future new components will be added to use this score in evaluation of preterm infants.

-Upasana Y. :)

Timeline in Psychiatry

Hello Medicowesomites! While studying psychiatry, you must have realised diagnosis of any condition requires two parameters:

1. Clinical presentation
2. Time

This post enlists how to make a psychiatric diagnosis in time.

Author's note: This blogpost is intended for an audience having a foundation knowledge of the subject.
It does not explain any concept or review any literature, instead serves as a quick cheat sheet for timeline required to make a psychiatric diagnosis.

[Kindly click on the image to view the table clearly]

Happy studying!

-- Ashish Singh